DM-5 MICROBIOLOGICAL QUALITY AND SAFETY IN DAIRY INDUSTRY
1. Which of the following agencies does prescribe the level of treatment needed for dairy plant?
2. Number of kilograms of whole milk required to produce one kilogram of BOD = ------
3. COD of the dairy effluent is determined
4. In anaerobic digestion intermediate compounds are converted into
5. Production of methane from fermentation intermediate compounds is accomplished by
6. The process undertaken characterize the risk public health and safety posed by food borne hazard is
7. The severity of the hazard is notusuallylifethreatening, short duration, self limiting symptoms and can be severe discomfort is ranked as
8. Which of the following product associated with higher risk of Listeria monocytogenes?
9. The pasteurization process eliminates all pathogenic bacteria found in raw milk, with the exception.................................
10.
11. Recommended minimum sample size required for microbiological analysis of butter is
12. Temperature recommended for storage and transport of ice cream and frozen dessert is
13. Reference test procedure used for enumeration of yeast and mould count in butter is
14.
1.As per class 3 sampling plan of FSSAI regulation 2011 for microbiological parameters of milk and milk products, the maximum allowable number of defective sample units (c) is
15.
1.As per FSSAI regulation 2011, the number of sample units which must be examined from a lot ( n ) for microbiological analysis of milk and milk products is
16. The major group of microorganisms present in raw milk is
17. The commercialsterilityofthemilk ormilkproduct is achieved by using
18. The phase of butter which favours the growth of L.monocytogenes during storage
19. Pathogenic bacterium of major concern in sweetened condensed milk is
20. Common factor responsible for outbreaks of salmonellosis through milk powder is
21. Themajormicrobialpathogensofconcernassociatedwithice-cream according to ICMSF publication
22. The important source of Salmonella in ice cream is
23. The following reasons are responsible for growth and toxigenesisofC.botulinumspores in yoghurt
24. Which of the following dairy products is grouped under high risk
25. The S. aureus count in Khoais
26. Which level of biosafety has to be followed for working withSalmonella typhi?
27. Which level of biosafety consists of multiple electronically secured airlocks?
28. Which level of biosafety has to be followed for working with Haemorrhagic colitis?
29. Which of the following materials can be used for cleaning of working table in microbiology lab?
30. Which of the biosafety level requires an ante-room in their passage way?
31. Selective media used for enumeration of Enterobacteriaceae count is
32. The diseases caused by E. coli O157: H7 is
33. Which organism indicates the faecal contamination of milk?
34. Expand PALCAM
35. Which of the following is process indicator?
36. The reagent used for detection of indole during enzymatic hydrolysis of Tryptophan by E. coli is
37. The red colored coliform colonies on Hichrome ECC medium is due to the production of enzyme called as
38. The following enzyme is not produced by E.coli O157:H7 is
39. The following selective agent is present in violet red bile agar used for enumeration of coliform
40. The gene which is responsible for production of ?-glucuronidase enzyme is
41. On which agar medium is H2S production tested?
42. Which of the following is used for selective enrichment of samples?
43. Which organism can be detected using Deoxycholate agar?
44. The colony characteristic color of Salmonella on RAMBACH Agar (Chromogenic media) is
45. The enzyme not produced by Salmonella is
46. The fermentation of the following sugar by L. monocytogenes differentiates it from other Listeria species
47. Expand PALCAM
48. Henry illuminator used for the detection of
49. The following enzymes are produced by Listeria monocytogene
50. The colony charecteristics of L. monocytogenes on PALCAM agar is
51. Selective medium used for enumeration of Staphylococcus aureus is
52. Staphylococcus aureusis resistant to salt at a salt concentration of
53. The test indicates the possible presence of pathogenic S. aureus
54. ---------- test shows colour changes with pink zone or almost colourless on media containing toluidine blue and methyl green for pathogenic S. aureus.
55. The pathogenic S. aureus can also presumptively be differentiated by exploiting the fact that they metabolize -------------- to form acid.
56. The component is selective for enumeration of Bacillus cereus in a selective medium
57. The selective medium used for detection of Clostridium perfringens is
58. Opaque white zones surrounding the black coloniesof C. perfringens on TSC agar are due to
59. The botulinum toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum is highly effective on
60. Colony characteristics of Bacillus cereus on MYP agar medium include
61. Quantity of milk used for making Breed smear in DMC tests is
62. The method that depends on fluorescent microscopy
63. Which chemical is used to treat milk in DEFT
64. The colony count method that does not use pipettes and dilution bottles?
65. Which of the following organism/s can be detected by Limulus Lysate test
66. Maximum residual limit (MRL) has been recommended by codex in milk for a ?-lactam antibiotic residues in milk is
67. IDF microbial inhibitory test used for detection of antibiotic residues in milk uses a
68. Penzymes test is based on the principle of inhibition of enzyme by Antibiotic residues is
69. Suspected reasons for presence of antibiotic residues in milk is
70. Maximum residual limit (MRL) has been recommended by FDA in milk for Aflatoxin M1 is
71. Charm assay works on the principle of
72. Utilization of Bacillus cereus spores as bio-molecule for the detection of ?-lactams is due to the organism’s ability to induce the enzyme known as
73. SPR stand of
74. Important features of optical based biosensors is
75. The challenges faced by biosensors technology is
76. Lean Manufacturing (also called Toyota Production System, TPS) is a production system inspired by the Japanese concept of
77. PDCA stand for
78. ............................... requires SOP, or standard operating procedures will support andmaintain the effort put forth in the first three steps of the 5S process.
79. Total productivity maintenance activity programme was first implemented in
80. DMAIC stand for
81. Principal tool of a statistical QC system is
82. Statistical quality control is also referred as
83. p chart is one of the more useful attribute control charts and it is used for determining
84. The amount of a specific attribute desired in the product is known as
85. Where greater sensitivity in detecting small process changes is required the data can be plotted by use of
86. For pasteurization of raw milk an ALOP wasestablished against
87. USA was the first country to introduce
88. The major component under GHP which covers inclusion of ‘use-by date’ is
89. Effective application of ………………… concept depends on GHP
90. All measures necessary to ensure the safety and wholesomeness of foodstuffs is defined as
91. The lipid which promotes the formation of acne caused by Propionibacterium acnes in adolescent is named as
92. The pathogen that enters the food through contact carriers of people through nasal cavity is
93. The efficacy of hand washing and dryingagainst resident flora is
94. The concentration of alcohol used for disinfection of hands after washing with soap and water is
95. According to personnel hygiene monitoring, the excellent hygiene should have a count of
96. Recommended volume (ml) of diluents required for checking the hygiene status of milk bottles by using surface rinse method is
97. Recommended strength of Ringer’s solution used in swab and rinse techniques for dairy equipment is
98. The light produced during ATP bioluminescence assay is measured in terms of
99. RODAC stand for
100. According to recommendations of the ATP-bioluminescence equipment manufacturer, the equipment to be considered clean should have a RLU count of
101. --------------- is of the following chemical groups used to control rodents in dairy plant
102. ----------- of the following accessories should be used to control the insects at food processing areas
103. Important source of Salmonella in skim milk powder plant is
104. Which of the following bacteria responsible for public health problem in dried milk can make entry through air is
105. Which of the following dairy products requires air quality control during packaging?
106. Which of the following agreements confirm the right of WTO member countries to apply measures to protect human, animal and plant life and health?
107. The inter-governmental body that coordinates food standards at the international level is
108. The standard which serves as a bench mark for comparison of national sanitary and phytosanitary measures is
109. The preventive approach which helps industry for control of food safety risk is
110. FSSAI has been created for formulating and implementing
111. ISO stands for
112. Indian Food Safety Standard Act was established in
113. After liberalization of global trade, the concept of quality has changed to
114.
The operational techniques and activities that are used to satisfy quality requirements are referred as
115. According to FSSAI, the responsibility for ensuring quality and safety in food products is entrusted to
116. TRIPS stand for
117. Appropriate level of protection is expressed in terms of
118. The process of weighing policy alternatives in consultation with all interested parties is known as
119. The interactive exchange of information and opinions throughout the risk analysis process concerning risk is called as
120. The estimate associated with uncertainty of the occurrence and level of the pathogen in a specified portion of food at the time of consumption is called
121. The approach which is considered to be general principle for food and feed safety policy is
122. Type of standards which is a viable approach in delivering food safety goal is
123. Following includes the distinct area of food regulations
124. Which of the following regulatory system will set up the crisis management unit to provide scientific and technical assistance if necessary?
125. The regulatory system that deals with the obligatory notification of any direct or indirect risk to human health, animal health or the environment is
126. Comprehensive law enacted by Indian parliament and that overrides all other food related laws is
127. ............... are the major reforms required by the food business operators, including big retailers, to ensure safe food articles
128. FSO’s stands for
129. Establishment of milk and milk products order in year
130. In which year FSSAI was set up to lay down scientific standards and ensure availability of safe food for human consumption?
131. Which of the following is the new concept of quality?
132. Which of the following is the critical requirement for successful implementation of QMS?
133. Process approach is a
134. Which one of the following terminologies refers to a product’s failure to comply with the specified product requirements?
135. A set of activities intended to ensure that quality requirements are actually being met is referred as
136. The number of quality management system (QMS) principles defined in ISO 9000:2005 is
137. An isolated incident of a failure to comply with a defined process or QMS requirement is referred to as
138. The ISO standard that provides guidance for the continual improvement of an organization’s performance is
139. The standard describes the concepts of a quality management system (QMS) and defines the fundamental terms is
140. ISO standards were first published in
141. An isolated incident of a failure to comply with a QMS requirement is referred to as
142. The standard which is used for the certi?cation of QMS in any organisation is
143. Gap Analysis during implementation of ISO 9000: 2000 is carried out by
144. Objective of Implementation of QMS in dairy processing plant is to
145. IATCA stands for
146. ISO 22000 (Food Safety Management System) –Requirement for any food chain was first published in
147. The FSMS is differentiated with HACCP system in
148. The programme used in FSMS to reduce the likelihood that products will be exposed to hazards is called as
149. The seriousness of hazard is called as
150. A criterion which separates acceptability from unacceptability is
151. HACCP stands for
152. The role of HACCP is to identify hazards like
153. ...............................is used to determine the CCP in the HACCP system
154. Number of principle involved in HACCP system
155. In HACCP, specific corrective actions must be applied in case of......................